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So, if the subsidiary is a trading company which satisfies the ‘substantial’ test, and the holding company has owned the trading sub 100% (50+50) “throughout the period of 2 years ending with the date of the disposal” the disposal should qualify for BADR.
Holding company of a trading group owns all the shares. Dividends are voted upwards to the holding company and distributed to the shareholders. Questions: 1) As long as all the dividends are voted out to the shareholders, my understanding is that the holding company is not classed as associated? For this to apply do these have to be distributed ...
I am a sole practioner and have been asked about setting up a holding company and the tax implications. Client wants to set up a holding company for his trading company, transfer all/most profits from trading company to holding company via dividend. He then wants to invest some of this money buying 20% of shares in another business (not owned ...
A new client has purchased a property holding company, Many thanks. This is achieved by buying the shares of the company, which (in the case of an unquoted company) should be at market values (s.273 TCGA). There are many valuation techniques, and based on the information provided net-asset basis may be appropriate. So, out of the £925 the ...
So COVID has made getting business banks hard but normal 1/2 shareholder companies seem to be going fine now. However, when we try and get banking facilities for holding companies and associated companies. No bank seems to want to do the KYC to offer facilities. Has anyone got a similar experience or a good route to banking for these companies.
If a small holding company takes advantage of the S399 exemption and does not prepare consolidated accounts, what is the minimum information that it is required to disclose in its individual company accounts with regard to a 100% subsidiary holding, and is the 100% subsidiary company required to disclose the name of the holding company in it's accounts ?
The holding company is there purely to receive dividends paid by the trading company that sits underneath it. My client is the director of both companies. My client is the director of both companies. Client (owns 100%) > Holding Company (owns 100%) > Trading Co
Client has a holding company that receives/pays dividends out straight away but they have a bank account to do this which incures bank charges which the sub company has to give money to in order to pay. Would this still be classed as passive as i know the rules says it should have no assets other than shares. I just think its a bit unfair as ...
2 existing companies traded (in completely diff sectors) for many years, and a holding company has now been set up and the shares in both transferred to this (a solicitor has dealt with all of this). The shareholders in the Holding Company are Mr A and Mr B (who are both directors of the 2 subsidiary companies).
Mr x owns 100% of the shares in Company A, he would like to transfer his shares to a new holding company as a S4S. He has personally purchased the shares he holds in a Co A for £100k.
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